|
|
3A-3.2 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 10.14-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
3A-3.3 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 3725-kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
3A-3.4 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 7080-kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
3A-3.5 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 24.95-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
3A-3.7 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station transmitting on 21.150-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts DC input
D. 1500 watts PEP output
3A-4.1 How must a General control operator at a Novice station
make the station identification when transmitting on 7250 kHz in
ITU Region 2?
A. The control operator should identify the station with his
or her call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice
call
B. The control operator should identify the station with his
or her call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word)
and the Novice call
C. The control operator should identify the station with the
Novice call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word)
and his or her own call
D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even
with a General class control operator
3A-4.3 How must a control operator who has a Technician class
license and a "Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination" for General class privileges identify the station
when transmitting on 14.325 MHz? (Assume telephony)
A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz
B. No special form of identification is needed
C. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by
"slant mark" or any suitable word that denotes the slant mark and
the identifier "AG"
D. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by
the date and location of the VEC examination where he/she
obtained the upgraded license
3A-6.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party
communications be transmitted to a foreign country by an amateur
station where the third party is not eligible to be a control
operator of the station?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the country has a third-party communications
agreement with the United States
C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class
licensee
D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with
the United States
3A-6.2 What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur
station to a foreign country for a third-party?
A. Third-party communications involving material
compensation, either tangible or intangible, direct or indirect,
to a third party, a station licensee, a control operator, or
other person
B. Third-party communications facilitating the business
affairs of any party
C. Third-party communications limited to messages of a
technical nature or remarks of a personal character
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for
third parties
3A-6.6 Which of the following limitations apply to third-party
messages transmitted to foreign countries where the third party
is not eligible to be a control operator of the station?
A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs
in countries with which the US has a third-party communications
agreement
B. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU
Region 1
C. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU
Region 3
D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in
English
3A-8.6 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmitting on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an
amateur station with a Technician control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a
Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of
communications emergency
D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter
is authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz
3A-9.1 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 160-meter wavelength band?
A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only
B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only
C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only
D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only
3A-9.2 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 75/80-meter wavelength band?
A. 3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
3A-9.3 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 40-meter wavelength band?
A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
3A-9.4 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 30-meter wavelength band?
A. 10,100 to 10,150 kHz only
B. 10,105 to 10,150 kHz only
C. 10,125 to 10,150 kHz only
D. 10,100 to 10,125 kHz only
3A-9.5 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 20-meter wavelength band?
A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only
B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only
C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only
D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only
3A-9.6 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 15-meter wavelength band?
A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
3A-9.7 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 12-meter wavelength band?
A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only
B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only
C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only
D. 24,790 to 24,990 kHz only
3A-9.8 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 10-meter wavelength band?
A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only
C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only
D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only
3A-9.9 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
3A-9.10 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz?
A. Extra, Advanced only
B. Extra, Advanced, General only
C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only
3A-9.11 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
3A-9.12 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125-
MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra only
D. Technician only
3A-9.13 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325-
MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
B. Extra, Advanced, General only
C. Extra, Advanced only
D. Extra only
3A-9.14 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425-
MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only
B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced only
3A-9.15 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895-
MHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. None
3A-9.16 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616-
MHz?
A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
C. General, Advanced, Extra only
D. Advanced, Extra only
3A-10.1 On what frequencies within the 160-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
A. 1800-2000 kHz only
B. 1800-1900 kHz only
C. 1900-2000 kHz only
D. 1825-1950 kHz only
3A-10.2 On what frequencies within the 80-meter wavelength band
may CW emissions be transmitted?
A. 3500-3750 kHz only
B. 3700-3750 kHz only
C. 3500-4000 kHz only
D. 3890-4000 kHz only
3A-10.3 On what frequencies within the 40-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
A. 7225-7300 kHz only
B. 7000-7300 kHz only
C. 7100-7150 kHz only
D. 7150-7300 kHz only
3A-10.4 On what frequencies within the 30-meter wavelength band
may RTTY emissions be transmitted?
A. 10.140-10.150 MHz only
B. 10.125-10.150 MHz only
C. 10.100-10.150 MHz only
D. 10.100-10.125 MHz only
3A-10.5 On what frequencies within the 20-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
A. 14,200-14,300 kHz only
B. 14,150-14,350 kHz only
C. 14,025-14,150 kHz only
D. 14,150-14,300 kHz only
3A-10.6 On what frequencies within the 15-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
A. 21,200-21,300 kHz only
B. 21,350-21,450 kHz only
C. 21,200-21,450 kHz only
D. 21,100-21,200 kHz only
3A-10.7 On what frequencies within the 12-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
A. 24,890-24,990 kHz only
B. 24,890-24,930 kHz only
C. 24,930-24,990 kHz only
D. Phone emissions are not permitted in this band
3A-10.8 On what frequencies within the 10-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
A. 28,000-28,300 kHz only
B. 29,000-29,700 kHz only
C. 28,300-29,700 kHz only
D. 28,000-29,000 kHz only
3A-13.1 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for data
emissions below 28 MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 300 bauds
D. 1200 bauds
3A-13.2 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for RTTY
emissions below 28 MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
3A-14.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
engage in some form of broadcasting?
A. During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather
information for people with scanners
B. Under no circumstances
C. If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations
may broadcast information bulletins, but not music
D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz
3A-14.6 Which of the following is ++++not++++ a condition that allows an
amateur station to engage in news gathering for broadcast
purposes?
A. The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur
Radio
B. The information involves the immediate safety of life of
individuals or the immediate protection of property
C. The information is directly related to the event
D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means
3A-15.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
violin be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
C. Only above 1215 MHz
D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service
3A-15.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
piano be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
B. Only above 1215 MHz
C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service
D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
3A-15.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
harmonica be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service
C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
D. Only above 1215 MHz
3A-16.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
in two-way communication transmit a message in a secret code in
order to obscure the meaning of the communication?
A. Only above 450 MHz
B. Only on Field Day
C. Never
D. Only during a declared communications emergency
3A-16.2 In an amateur communication, what types of abbreviations
or procedural signals are not considered codes or ciphers?
A. Abbreviations and procedural signals certified by the
ARRL
B. Abbreviations and procedural signals established by
regulation or custom and usage and whose intent is to facilitate
communication and not to obscure meaning
C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure
the meaning of the message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted
3A-16.3 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way
domestic Amateur Radio communications?
A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored
contests
C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
D. Codes or ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz
3A-16.4 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way
international Amateur Radio communications?
A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX
contests
C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during internationally
declared emergencies
D. Codes or ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above
2.3 GHz
3B-1.4 What is meant by the term ++++flattopping++++ in a single-sideband
phone transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector
current
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly
adjusted
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
3B-1.5 How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
D. For a dip in plate current
3B-2.1 In what segment of the 20-meter wavelength band do most
RTTY transmissions take place?
A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz
B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz
C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz
D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz
3B-2.2 In what segment of the 80-meter wavelength band do most
RTTY transmissions take place?
A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz
B. 3500 to 3525 kHz
C. 3700 to 3750 kHz
D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz
3B-2.3 What is meant by the term ++++Baudot++++?
A. Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
B. Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four
mark and three space bits
C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop
bits
D. Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and
parity bits
3B-2.4 What is meant by the term ++++ASCII++++?
A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and
parity bits
B. ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four
mark and three space bits
C. ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop
bits
D. ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three
mark and two space bits
3B-2.6 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions
in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz
3B-2.10 What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?
A. A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz
B. Baudot and ASCII
C. ARQ and FEC
D. USB and LSB
3B-2.11 What is the meaning of the term ++++ARQ++++?
A. Automatic Repeater Queue
B. Automatic Receiver Quieting
C. Automatically Resend Quickly
D. Automatic Repeat Request
3B-2.12 What is the meaning of the term ++++FEC++++?
A. Frame Error Check
B. Forward Error Correction
C. Frequency Envelope Control
D. Frequency Encoded Connection
3B-3.8 What is a ++++band plan++++?
A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for
operating within a specific portion of radio spectrum
B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and
Regulations
C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal
Communications Commission
D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band
during a contest
3B-3.12 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
10 meter station in repeater operation?
A. 100 kHz
B. 600 kHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 170 Hz
3B-4.1 What is meant by the term ++++VOX transmitter control++++?
A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit
automatically when the operator speaks into the microphone
B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter
when the operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony
C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning
in a transceiver
D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient
noise level
3B-4.2 What is the common name for the circuit that causes a
transmitter to automatically transmit when a person speaks into
the microphone?
A. VXO
B. VOX
C. VCO
D. VFO
3B-5.1 What is meant by the term ++++full break-in telegraphy++++?
A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
breaking station sends the Morse Code symbols BK
B. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only
automatic keyers can be used
C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
operator must activate the send-receive switch after completing a
transmission
D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
receiver is sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key
pulses
3B-5.2 What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy
capability?
A. QSB
B. QSF
C. QSK
D. QSV
3B-6.1 When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should
be allowed in order to minimize interference?
A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. Approximately 6 kHz
3B-6.2 When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting
frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in
progress that should be allowed in order to minimize
interference?
A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers
B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers
C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers
D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers
3B-6.3 When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should
be allowed in order to minimize interference?
A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center
B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center
C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center
D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center
3B-7.1 What is an ++++azimuthal++++ map?
A. A map projection that is always centered on the North
Pole
B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that
determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of
the earth
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an
amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with
each orbit
3B-7.2 How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting
international HF radio communications?
A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the
shortest path to a DX station
B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting
antenna height to conduct the desired communication
C. It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur
satellite crosses the equator
D. It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency
(MUF)
3B-7.3 What is the most useful type of map when orienting a
directional antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant?
A. Azimuthal
B. Mercator
C. Polar projection
D. Topographical
3B-7.4 A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction
to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from
the short-path heading?
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees
3B-7.5 What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?
A. Approximately 0 degrees
B. Approximately 90 degrees
C. Approximately 180 degrees
D. Approximately 270 degrees
3B-8.1 When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in
another country must be limited to only what type of messages?
A. Messages of any type are permitted
B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications
services
C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
character of relative unimportance
D. Such transmissions are never permitted
3B-8.2 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
the continental United States?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.3 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Alaska?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.4 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
American Samoa?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.5 For uniformity in international radio communication, what
time measurement standard should Amateur Radio operators
worldwide use?
A. Eastern Standard Time
B. Uniform Calibrated Time
C. Coordinated Universal Time
D. Universal Time Control
3B-8.6 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Hawaii?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.7 In which International Telecommunication Union Region are
the Northern Mariana Islands?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.8 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Guam?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-8.9 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Wake Island?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
3B-10.1 What is the ++++Amateur Auxiliary++++ to the FCC's Field
Operations Bureau?
A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the
airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing
examinations
C. Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for
amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average
terrain measurements for repeater installations
3B-10.2 What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the
FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
A. To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with
the rules
B. To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the
rules
C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the
repeater subbands
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
3C-1.6 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface
that can normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?
A. Approximately 180 miles
B. Approximately 1200 miles
C. Approximately 2500 miles
D. No distance. This layer does not support radio
communication
3C-1.7 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface
that can be covered in one hop using the E layer?
A. Approximately 180 miles
B. Approximately 1200 miles
C. Approximately 2500 miles
D. No distance. This layer does not support radio
communication
3C-1.9 What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E
layer?
A. 45 miles
B. 70 miles
C. 200 miles
D. 1200 miles
3C-1.10 During what part of the day, and in what season of the
year can the F2 layer be expected to reach its maximum height?
A. At noon during the summer
B. At midnight during the summer
C. At dusk in the spring and fall
D. At noon during the winter
3C-1.13 What is the ++++critical angle++++, as used in radio wave
propagation?
A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave
to earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your
location
C. The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired
DX station from your location
D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave
to earth during specific ionospheric conditions
3C-2.3 What is the main reason that the 160-, 80-, and 40-meter
wavelength amateur bands tend to be useful for only short-
distance communications during daylight hours?
A. Because of a lack of activity
B. Because of auroral propagation
C. Because of D-layer absorption
D. Because of magnetic flux
3C-2.4 What is the principal reason the 160-meter through 40-
meter wavelength bands are useful for only short-distance
radio communications during daylight hours?
A. F-layer bending
B. Gamma radiation
C. D-layer absorption
D. Tropospheric ducting
3C-3.3 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota
to Africa is 22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for
a successful QSO?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 40 meters
3C-3.4 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to
West Germany is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance
for a successful QSO?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 2 meters
3C-5.1 Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric
disturbances normally last?
A. The entire day
B. A few minutes to a few hours
C. A few hours to a few days
D. Approximately one week
3C-5.2 What can be done at an amateur station to continue
radio communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A. Try a higher frequency
B. Try the other sideband
C. Try a different antenna polarization
D. Try a different frequency shift
3C-5.3 What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on
the daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude
paths
B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than
those on higher frequencies
C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are
affected
3C-5.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases
the sun's ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances
on earth?
A. Instantaneously
B. 1.5 seconds
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
3C-5.5 Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave
absorption in which layer of the ionosphere?
A. D layer
B. E layer
C. F1 layer
D. F2 layer
3C-6.2 What is a characteristic of ++++backscatter++++ signals?
A. High intelligibility
B. A wavering sound
C. Reversed modulation
D. Reversed sidebands
3C-6.4 What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?
A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic
field
B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of
the signal's clarity
C. The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction
D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to
the transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths
3C-6.5 What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows
a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave
propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short path skip
3C-6.6 When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands
most often occur?
A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum
B. At night
C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined
D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency
3C-7.1 What is ++++solar flux++++?
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the
earth
D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the
side toward the sun
3C-7.2 What is the ++++solar-flux index++++?
A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity
B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily
readings with results from the last six months
C. Another name for the American sunspot number
D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily
3C-7.3 What is a timely indicator of solar activity?
A. The 2800-MHz solar flux index
B. The mean Canadian sunspot number
C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time
D. Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder,
Colorado
3C-7.4 What type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter
wavelength band are indicated by a solar-flux index value of 60
to 70?
A. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
C. Excellent ionospheric propagation
D. Poor ionospheric propagation
3C-7.5 A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates
what type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter wavelength
band?
A. Poor ionospheric propagation
B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
C. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
D. Good ionospheric propagation
3C-7.6 A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what
type of propagation conditions on the 10-meter wavelength band?
A. Good ionospheric propagation
B. Poor ionospheric propagation
C. No ionospheric propagation is possible
D. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
3C-7.7 For widespread long distance openings on the 6-meter
wavelength band, what solar-flux index values would be required?
A. Less than 50
B. Approximately 75
C. Greater than 100
D. Greater than 250
3C-7.8 If the MUF is high and HF radio communications are
generally good for several days, a similar condition can usually
be expected how many days later?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 28 days
D. 90 days
3C-10.1 What is a ++++geomagnetic disturbance++++?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a
short period of time
3C-10.2 Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic
disturbances?
A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude
C. Equatorial paths
D. All paths are affected equally
3C-10.3 What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
radio communications?
A. Improved high-latitude HF communications
B. Degraded high-latitude HF communications
C. Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF
3C-10.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases
the sun's radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave
propagation on earth?
A. The effect is instantaneous
B. 1.5 seconds
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
3D-1.5 Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be
attached to fuses in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power
supply?
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
C. Only the ground (bare) wire
D. All wires
3D-1.6 What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC
household lighting circuit?
A. AWG number 14
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 18
D. AWG number 22
3D-1.7 What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC
household appliance circuit?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 14
D. AWG number 12
3D-1.8 What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the
transmitter is keyed?
A. RF in the AC pole transformer
B. High resistance in the key contacts
C. A drop in AC line voltage
D. The line cord is wired incorrectly
3D-1.9 What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household
appliance circuit?
A. Maximum of 100 amperes
B. Maximum of 60 amperes
C. Maximum of 30 amperes
D. Maximum of 20 amperes
3D-2.4 What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a
power supply?
A. It improves voltage regulation
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current
3D-3.1 What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing
the output on an oscilloscope?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
3D-3.2 To test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone
transmitter with an oscilloscope, what should the audio input to
the transmitter be?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
3D-3.3 How are two tones used to test the amplitude linearity of
a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on an oscilloscope
B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on a distortion analyzer
C. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on an oscilloscope
D. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on a wattmeter
3D-3.4 What audio frequencies are used in a ++++two-tone test++++ of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used
B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within
the transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within
the transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically
related
3D-3.5 What can be determined by making a ++++two-tone test++++ using an
oscilloscope?
A. The percent of frequency modulation
B. The percent of carrier phase shift
C. The frequency deviation
D. The amplifier linearity
3D-4.1 How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be
used as a neutralizing indicator?
A. Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output
circuit is changed
B. Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output
circuit is changed
C. Tune for minimum grid current
D. Tune for maximum grid current
3D-4.2 Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers
necessary?
A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned
circuits
B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage
C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas
D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of
interelectrode capacitance
3D-4.3 How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished?
A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input on alternate half cycles
B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input shifted 360 degrees out of phase
C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input shifted 180 degrees out of phase
D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input with a proper DC bias
3D-4.4 What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF
amplifier?
A. It controls differential gain
B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
C. It eliminates circulating currents
D. It reduces incidental grid modulation
3D-4.5 What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier
stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency
3D-5.1 How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with
an oscilloscope?
A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL)
B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707
PEV)]/RL
C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414
PEV)]/RL
3D-5.5 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?
A. 100 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 1000 watts
3D-5.6 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?
A. 500 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 1250 watts
D. 2500 watts
3D-5.7 What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier
transmitter when an average-reading wattmeter connected to the
transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
3D-6.1 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and
vertical channel amplifiers?
A. The ohmmeter
B. The signal generator
C. The ammeter
D. The oscilloscope
3D-6.2 What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure?
A. Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability
of the instrument
B. Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels
C. International nautical flag signals
D. Signals created by aeronautical flares
3D-6.3 What is an ++++oscilloscope++++?
A. An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of
an antenna
B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line
C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit
D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms
3D-6.4 What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode
ray tube?
A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode
ray tube
B. Too high an intensity setting
C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier
D. Improperly adjusted focus
3D-9.1 What is a ++++signal tracer++++?
A. A direction-finding antenna
B. An aid for following schematic diagrams
C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit
D. A device for drawing signal waveforms
3D-9.2 How is a signal tracer used?
A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages
of a receiver
B. To locate a source of interference
C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the
ionosphere
D. To draw a waveform on paper
3D-9.3 What is a signal tracer normally used for?
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
B. To make exact replicas of signals
C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-
wire feed lines
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver
3D-10.1 What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate
audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems?
A. Install bypass inductors
B. Install bypass capacitors
C. Install metal oxide varistors
D. Install bypass resistors
3D-10.2 What should be done when a properly operating amateur
station is the source of interference to a nearby telephone?
A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
B. Contact a phone service representative about installing
RFI filters
C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference
D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution
amplifier
3D-10.3 What sound is heard from a public address system when
audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby single-
sideband phone transmission?
A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's
carrier is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
3D-10.4 How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring
be minimized?
A. By using a solid state transmitter
B. By using CW emission only
C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded
D. By using AM emission only
3D-10.5 What sound is heard from a public address system when
audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby double-
sideband phone transmission?
A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter
signals
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the
transmitter's signals
3D-12.2 What is the reason for using a speech processor with a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average
transmitter power requirements
B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted
noise pickup from the microphone
C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice
frequency fidelity
D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
3D-12.3 When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech
processor increase the output PEP?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output
D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output
3D-12.4 Under which band conditions should a speech processor not
be used?
A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band
B. When the band is crowded
C. When the frequency in use is clear
D. When the sunspot count is relatively high
3D-12.5 What effect can result from using a speech processor with
a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average
transmitter power requirements
B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted
noise pickup from the microphone
C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice
frequency fidelity
D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
3D-13.1 At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R
switch be installed?
A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
C. At the antenna feed point
D. Right after the low-pass filter
3D-13.2 Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a
mechanical one?
A. Greater receiver sensitivity
B. Circuit simplicity
C. Higher operating speed
D. Cleaner output signals
3D-13.3 What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?
A. Oscilloscope
B. Audio CW filter
C. Antenna relay
D. Electronic TR switch
3D-14.6 What is an antenna ++++noise bridge++++?
A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an
antenna or other electrical circuit
B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna
or other electrical circuit
C. An instrument for measuring solar flux
D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver
3D-14.7 How is an antenna noise bridge used?
A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise
is read directly
B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and
tuned for minimum SWR
C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown
impedance and tuned for minimum noise
D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and
adjusted for minimum SWR
3D-15.1 How does the emitted waveform from a properly adjusted
single-sideband phone transmitter appear on a monitoring
oscilloscope?
A. A vertical line
B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform
C. A square wave
D. Two loops at right angles
3D-15.2 What is the best instrument for checking the transmitted
signal quality from a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A monitor oscilloscope
B. A field strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier
3D-15.3 What is a ++++monitoring oscilloscope++++?
A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals
B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted
signal
C. A device used to display SSTV signals
D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage
3D-15.4 How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station
in order to check the quality of the transmitted signal?
A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection
plates of the oscilloscope
B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope
vertical input
C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope
vertical input
D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection
plates of the oscilloscope
3D-17.2 What is the most appropriate instrument to use when
determining antenna horizontal radiation patterns?
A. A field strength meter
B. A grid-dip meter
C. A wave meter
D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter
3D-17.3 What is a ++++field-strength++++ meter?
A. A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a
transmission line
B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a
transmitter
C. A device for monitoring relative RF output
D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output
3D-17.4 What is a simple instrument that can be useful for
monitoring relative RF output during antenna and transmitter
adjustments?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Transmatch
3D-17.5 When the power output from a transmitter is increased by
four times, how should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver
change?
A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit
B. Increase by approximately one S-unit
C. Increase by approximately four S-units
D. Decrease by approximately four S-units
3D-17.6 By how many times must the power output from a
transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby
receiver from S-8 to S-9?
A. Approximately 2 times
B. Approximately 3 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 5 times
3E-1.1 What is meant by the term ++++impedance++++?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing
only capacitance
C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
D. The force of repulsion presented to an electric field by
another field with the same charge
3E-1.2 What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
containing both resistance and reactance called?
A. Ohm
B. Joule
C. Impedance
D. Watt
3E-3.1 What is meant by the term ++++reactance++++?
A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors
B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an
inductor is de-energized
3E-3.2 What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by an
inductor called?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
3E-3.3 What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by a
capacitor called?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
3E-3.4 How does a coil react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance also increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance also increases
3E-3.5 How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance also increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
3E-6.1 When will a power source deliver maximum output?
A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance
of the source
B. When the SWR has reached a maximum value
C. When the power supply fuse rating equals the primary
winding current
D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron core
transformers
3E-6.2 What is meant by ++++impedance matching++++?
A. To make the load impedance much greater than the source
impedance
B. To make the load impedance much less than the source
impedance
C. To use a balun at the antenna feed point
D. To make the load impedance equal the source impedance
3E-6.3 What occurs when the impedance of an electrical load is
equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. There will be a high SWR condition
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source delivers maximum power to the load
3E-6.4 Why is ++++impedance matching++++ important in radio work?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in
the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the
circuit are equal
3E-7.2 What is the unit measurement of reactance?
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens
3E-7.4 What is the unit measurement of impedance?
A. Ohm
B. Volt
C. Ampere
D. Watt
3E-10.1 What is a ++++bel++++?
A. The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels
B. The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances
C. The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances
D. The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances
3E-10.2 What is a ++++decibel++++?
A. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal
to 0.1 bel
B. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal
to 0.01 bel
C. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal
to 10 bels
D. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal
to 100 bels
3E-10.3 Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable change in
loudness is approximately how many dB?
A. 12 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
3E-10.4 A two-times increase in power results in a change of how
many dB?
A. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power
that is 1 dB higher
B. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power
that is 3 dB higher
C. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power
that is 6 dB higher
D. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power
that is 12 dB higher
3E-10.5 An increase of 6 dB results from raising the power by how
many times?
A. Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
B. Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power
C. Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power
D. Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power
3E-10.6 A decrease of 3 dB results from lowering the power by how
many times?
A. Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
B. Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power
C. Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power
D. Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power
3E-10.7 A signal strength report is "10 dB over S9." If the
transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what
should be the new signal strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 5 dB
3E-10.8 A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9." If the
transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what
should be the new signal strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 10 dB
3E-10.9 A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9." If the
transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 15 watts, what
should be the new signal strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 10 dB
3E-12.1 If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two
parallel-connected 10 ohm resistors, how much current passes
through each resistor?
A. 10 amperes
B. 2 amperes
C. 1 ampere
D. 0.5 ampere
3E-12.3 In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several
branch resistors, what relationship does the total current have
to the current in the branch circuits?
A. The total current equals the average of the branch
current through each resistor
B. The total current equals the sum of the branch current
through each resistor
C. The total current decreases as more parallel resistors
are added to the circuit
D. The total current is calculated by adding the voltage
drops across each resistor and multiplying the sum by the total
number of all circuit resistors
3E-13.1 How many watts of electrical power are being used when a
400-VDC power source supplies an 800 ohm load?
A. 0.5 watt
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 320,000 watts
3E-13.2 How many watts of electrical power are being consumed by
a 12-VDC pilot light which draws 0.2-amperes?
A. 60 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 2.4 watts
3E-13.3 How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0-milliamperes
flows through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts
3E-14.1 How is the total resistance calculated for several
resistors in series?
A. The total resistance must be divided by the number of
resistors to ensure accurate measurement of resistance
B. The total resistance is always the lowest-rated
resistance
C. The total resistance is found by adding the individual
resistances together
D. The tolerance of each resistor must be raised
proportionally to the number of resistors
3E-14.2 What is the total resistance of two equal, parallel-
connected resistors?
A. Twice the resistance of either resistance
B. The sum of the two resistances
C. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing
the exact resistances
D. Half the resistance of either resistor
3E-14.3 What is the total inductance of two equal, parallel-
connected inductors?
A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no
mutual coupling
B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no
mutual coupling
C. The sum of the two inductances, assuming no mutual
coupling
D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing
the exact inductances
3E-14.4 What is the total capacitance of two equal, parallel-
connected capacitors?
A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor
B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
C. The value of either capacitor
D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without
knowing the exact capacitances
3E-14.5 What is the total resistance of two equal, series-
connected resistors?
A. Half the resistance of either resistor
B. Twice the resistance of either resistor
C. The value of either resistor
D. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing
the exact resistances
3E-14.6 What is the total inductance of two equal, series-
connected inductors?
A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no
mutual coupling
B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no
mutual coupling
C. The value of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing
the exact inductances
3E-14.7 What is the total capacitance of two equal, series-
connected capacitors?
A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor
B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
C. The value of either capacitor
D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without
knowing the exact capacitances
3E-15.1 What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding
in a transformer when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117-
VAC?
A. 2369 volts
B. 526.5 volts
C. 26 volts
D. 5.8 volts
3E-15.2 What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an
audio amplifier having an output impedance of 200 ohms to a
speaker having an impedance of 10 ohms?
A. 4.47 to 1
B. 14.14 to 1
C. 20 to 1
D. 400 to 1
3E-15.3 What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an
audio amplifier having an output impedance of 600 ohms to a
speaker having an impedance of 4 ohms?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
3E-15.4 What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a
transformer with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio
amplifier having an output impedance of 2000 ohms?
A. 576 ohms
B. 83.3 ohms
C. 7.0 ohms
D. 3.5 ohms
3E-16.1 What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of
heat over time in a resistive element as would an applied sine
wave AC voltage?
A. A DC voltage equal to the peak-to-peak value of the AC
voltage
B. A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage
C. A DC voltage equal to the average value of the AC voltage
D. A DC voltage equal to the peak value of the AC voltage
3E-16.2 What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave which has
an RMS voltage of 117-volts?
A. 82.7 volts
B. 165.5 volts
C. 183.9 volts
D. 330.9 volts
3E-16.3 A sine wave of 17-volts peak is equivalent to how many
volts RMS?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
3F-1.5 What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature
on the resistance of a carbon resistor?
A. The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees
centigrade that the temperature increases
B. The resistance stays the same
C. The resistance change depends on the resistor's
temperature coefficient rating
D. The resistance becomes time dependent
3F-2.6 What type of capacitor is often used in power supply
circuits to filter the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic
B. Vacuum variable
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
3F-2.7 What type of capacitor is used in power supply circuits to
filter transient voltage spikes across the transformer secondary
winding?
A. High-value
B. Trimmer
C. Vacuum variable
D. Suppressor
3F-3.5 How do inductors become self-resonant?
A. Through distributed electromagnetism
B. Through eddy currents
C. Through distributed capacitance
D. Through parasitic hysteresis
3F-4.1 What circuit component can change 120-VAC to 400-VAC?
A. A transformer
B. A capacitor
C. A diode
D. An SCR
3F-4.2 What is the source of energy connected to in a
transformer?
A. To the secondary winding
B. To the primary winding
C. To the core
D. To the plates
3F-4.3 When there is no load attached to the secondary winding of
a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current
3F-4.4 In what terms are the primary and secondary windings
ratings of a power transformer usually specified?
A. Joules per second
B. Peak inverse voltage
C. Coulombs per second
D. Volts or volt-amperes
3F-5.1 What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power supply
rectifier?
A. The highest transient voltage the diode will handle
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage to be applied in the non-conducting
direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
3F-5.2 Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected?
A. Because of their proximity to the power transformer
B. Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot
C. Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages
D. Because of their use in high-voltage applications
3F-5.4 What are the two major ratings for silicon diode
rectifiers of the type used in power supply circuits which must
not be exceeded?
A. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
B. Average power; average voltage
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
D. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
3G-1.1 Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel
with power supply rectifier diodes?
A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient
voltage spikes
B. To ensure that the current through each diode is about
the same
C. To smooth the output waveform
D. To decrease the output voltage
3G-1.2 What function do capacitors serve when resistors and
capacitors are connected in parallel with high voltage power
supply rectifier diodes?
A. They double or triple the output voltage
B. They block the alternating current
C. They protect those diodes that develop back resistance
faster than other diodes
D. They regulate the output voltage
3G-1.3 What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave
rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A steady DC voltage
B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
3G-1.4 How many degrees of each cycle does a half-wave rectifier
utilize?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
3G-1.5 How many degrees of each cycle does a full-wave rectifier
utilize?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
3G-1.6 Where is a power supply bleeder resistor connected?
A. Across the filter capacitor
B. Across the power-supply input
C. Between the transformer primary and secondary
D. Across the inductor in the output filter
3G-1.7 What components comprise a power supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transistors
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors
3G-1.8 What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the
rectifier in a full-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
3G-1.9 What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the
rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of
the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the
power supply
3G-2.8 What should the impedance of a low-pass filter be as
compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it
is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B. About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance
3H-2.1 What is the term for alteration of the amplitude of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Frequency modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude rectification
D. Amplitude modulation
3H-2.3 What is the term for alteration of the phase of an RF wave
for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Phase rectification
D. Amplitude modulation
3H-2.4 What is the term for alteration of the frequency of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Phase rectification
B. Frequency rectification
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation
3H-3.1 In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude
(envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the
modulating AF?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
3H-3.2 What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group
of sidebands generated by a correctly operating double-sideband
phone transmitter?
A. The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter
B. The phase angle between the audio and radio frequencies
being mixed
C. The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO
D. The CW keying speed
3H-4.1 How much is the carrier suppressed in a single-sideband
phone transmission?
A. No more than 20 dB below peak output power
B. No more than 30 dB below peak output power
C. At least 40 dB below peak output power
D. At least 60 dB below peak output power
3H-4.2 What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-
sideband phone transmission?
A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same
information content
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower
distortion
C. More power can be put into the sidebands
D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-
sideband suppressed-carrier signal
3H-5.1 Which one of the telephony emissions popular with amateurs
occupies the narrowest band of frequencies?
A. Single-sideband emission
B. Double-sideband emission
C. Phase-modulated emission
D. Frequency-modulated emission
3H-5.2 Which emission type is produced by a telephony transmitter
having a balanced modulator followed by a 2.5-kHz bandpass
filter?
A. PM
B. AM
C. SSB
D. FM
3H-7.2 What emission is produced by a reactance modulator
connected to an RF power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation
3H-8.1 What purpose does the carrier serve in a double-sideband
phone transmission?
A. The carrier separates the sidebands so they don't cancel
in the receiver
B. The carrier contains the modulation information
C. The carrier maintains symmetry of the sidebands to
prevent distortion
D. The carrier serves as a reference signal for demodulation
by an envelope detector
3H-8.2 What signal component appears in the center of the
frequency band of a double-sideband phone transmission?
A. The lower sidebands
B. The subcarrier
C. The carrier
D. The pilot tone
3H-9.1 What sidebands are generated by a double-sideband phone
transmitter with a 7250-kHz carrier when it is modulated less
than 100% by an 800-Hz pure sine wave?
A. 7250.8 kHz and 7251.6 kHz
B. 7250.0 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
C. 7249.2 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
D. 7248.4 kHz and 7249.2 kHz
3H-10.1 How many times over the maximum deviation is the
bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission?
A. 1.5
B. At least 2.0
C. At least 4.0
D. The bandwidth cannot be determined without knowing the
exact carrier and modulating frequencies involved
3H-10.2 What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission
having a 5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz
3H-11.1 What happens to the shape of the RF envelope, as viewed
on an oscilloscope, during double-sideband phone transmission?
A. The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases in
proportion to the modulating signal
B. The amplitude of the envelope remains constant
C. The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases in
proportion to the modulating signal
D. The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases in
proportion to the amplitude of the modulating signal
3H-13.1 What results when a single-sideband phone transmitter is
overmodulated?
A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects
B. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high
frequency response
C. The signal has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-
noise ratio
D. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
3H-13.2 What results when a double-sideband phone transmitter is
overmodulated?
A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects
B. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
C. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high
frequency response
D. The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates
3H-15.1 What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz
reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz
FM-phone transmitter?
A. 41.67 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 12 kHz
3H-15.2 What stage in a transmitter would translate a 5.3-MHz
input signal to 14.3-MHz?
A. A mixer
B. A beat frequency oscillator
C. A frequency multiplier
D. A linear translator stage
3H-16.4 How many frequency components are in the signal from an
AF shift keyer at any instant?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
3H-16.5 How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK
signal?
A. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times
the keying speed in WPM
B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of
keying speed
C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
3I-1.3 Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications
on the 20-meter wavelength band?
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the
horizontal plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a
dipole or vertical antenna
C. It discriminates against interference from other stations
off to the side or behind
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for
the HF bands
3I-1.7 What method is best suited to match an unbalanced coaxial
feed line to a Yagi antenna?
A. "T" match
B. Delta match
C. Hairpin match
D. Gamma match
3I-1.9 How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be
increased?
A. Use larger diameter elements
B. Use closer element spacing
C. Use traps on the elements
D. Use tapered-diameter elements
3I-2.1 How much gain over a half-wave dipole can a two-element
cubical quad antenna provide?
A. Approximately 0.6 dB
B. Approximately 2 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB
3I-3.1 How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven
element for 21.4-MHz?
A. 1.17 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 47 feet
D. 469 feet
3I-3.2 How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven
element for 14.3-MHz?
A. 1.75 feet
B. 17.6 feet
C. 23.4 feet
D. 70.3 feet
3I-3.3 How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna reflector
element for 29.6-MHz?
A. 8.23 feet
B. 8.7 feet
C. 9.7 feet
D. 34.8 feet
3I-3.4 How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna
driven element for 28.7-MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 11.32 feet
C. 11.7 feet
D. 35 feet
3I-3.5 How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna
driven element for 24.9-MHz?
A. 10.09 feet
B. 13.05 feet
C. 13.45 feet
D. 40.36 feet
3I-3.6 How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna
reflector element for 14.1-MHz?
A. 18.26 feet
B. 23.76 feet
C. 24.35 feet
D. 73.05 feet
3I-3.7 How long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0-
MHz?
A. Approximately 17 feet
B. Approximately 33 feet
C. Approximately 35 feet
D. Approximately 66 feet
3I-3.8 How long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for
21.1-MHz?
A. Approximately 42 feet
B. Approximately 21 feet
C. Approximately 17 feet
D. Approximately 10.5 feet
3I-3.9 How long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for
28.1-MHz?
A. Approximately 8.75 feet
B. Approximately 16.6 feet
C. Approximately 17.5 feet
D. Approximately 35 feet
3I-5.1 What is the feed-point impedance for a half-wavelength
dipole HF antenna suspended horizontally one-quarter wavelength
or more above the ground?
A. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive
B. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive
C. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive
D. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive
3I-5.2 What is the feed-point impedance of a quarter-wavelength
vertical HF antenna with a horizontal ground plane?
A. Approximately 18 ohms
B. Approximately 36 ohms
C. Approximately 52 ohms
D. Approximately 72 ohms
3I-5.3 What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a
ground-plane antenna?
A. Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle
B. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point
impedance close to 300 ohms
C. Sloping the radials downward allows rainwater to run off
the antenna
D. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point
impedance closer to 50 ohms
3I-5.4 What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane
antenna when the radials slope downward from the base of the
antenna?
A. The feed-point impedance decreases
B. The feed-point impedance increases
C. The feed-point impedance stays the same
D. The feed-point impedance becomes purely capacitive
3I-6.1 Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional
radiation characteristics of a cubical quad HF antenna?
A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but
less directivity in the vertical plane
B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but
more directivity in the vertical plane
C. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and
vertical planes
D. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and
vertical planes
3I-6.2 What is the radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength
dipole HF antenna?
A. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates
well in a figure-eight pattern at right angles to the antenna
wire
B. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates
well in a figure-eight pattern off both ends of the antenna wire
C. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates
equally well in all directions
D. If it is installed parallel to the earth, the pattern
will have two lobes on one side of the antenna wire, and one
larger lobe on the other side
3I-6.3 How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation
pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. If the antenna is too far from the ground, the pattern
becomes unpredictable
B. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the
ground, reflected radio waves from the ground distort the
radiation pattern of the antenna
C. A dipole antenna's radiation pattern is unaffected by its
distance to the ground
D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the
ground, radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced
3I-6.4 What does the term ++++antenna front-to-back ratio++++ mean?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect
to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared
to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared
to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
3I-6.5 What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF dipole
antenna will a slightly smaller parasitic parallel element
located a few feet away in the same horizontal plane have?
A. The radiation pattern will not change appreciably
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
parallel to the two elements
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away
from the ground
D. If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major
lobe will develop in the horizontal plane to the side of the
driven element toward the parasitic element
3I-6.6 What is the meaning of the term ++++main lobe++++ as used in
reference to a directional antenna?
A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna
element
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from a
radiating antenna
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
element
3I-7.1 Upon what does the characteristic impedance of a parallel-
conductor antenna feed line depend?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and
the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and
the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the
signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
3I-7.2 What is the characteristic impedance of various coaxial
cables commonly used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
A. Around 25 and 30 ohms
B. Around 50 and 75 ohms
C. Around 80 and 100 ohms
D. Around 500 and 750 ohms
3I-7.3 What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial cable
have upon its characteristic impedance?
A. The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance
B. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily
above 144 MHz
C. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily
below 144 MHz
D. The length affects the characteristic impedance at any
frequency
3I-7.4 What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-
type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
3I-8.4 What is the cause of power being reflected back down an
antenna feed line?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna
feed-point impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
3I-9.3 What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed
line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 200 ohm feed-
point impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
3I-9.4 What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed
line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 10 ohm feed-
point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:1
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
3I-9.5 What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed
line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 50 ohm feed-
point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:50
C. 1:1
D. 0:0
3I-11.1 How does the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable
affect the amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through
it?
A. The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic
impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below
144 MHz
B. The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic
impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below
144 MHz
C. The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance
is about the same at all amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz
D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission
type in use
3I-11.2 How does the amount of attenuation to a 2 meter signal
passing through a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 meter
signal?
A. The attenuation is greater at 2 meters
B. The attenuation is less at 2 meters
C. The attenuation is the same at both frequencies
D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission
type in use
3I-11.4 What is the effect on its attenuation when flat-ribbon
TV-type twinlead is wet?
A. Attenuation decreases slightly
B. Attenuation remains the same
C. Attenuation decreases sharply
D. Attenuation increases
3I-11.7 Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be
applied to flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
A. To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors
B. To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed
line
C. To increase the velocity factor of the feed line
D. To help dissipate heat during high-SWR operation
3I-11.8 In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
A. Bels/1000 ft
B. dB/1000 ft
C. Bels/100 ft
D. dB/100 ft
3I-11.10 As the operating frequency increases, what happens to
the dielectric losses in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses decrease to zero
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses increase
3I-11.12 As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to
the dielectric losses in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses increase
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses become infinite
3I-12.1 What condition must be satisfied to prevent standing
waves of voltage and current on an antenna feed line?
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter
wavelengths long
C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half
wavelengths long
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the
characteristic impedance of the feed line
3I-12.2 How is an inductively-coupled matching network used in an
antenna system consisting of a center-fed resonant dipole and
coaxial feed line?
A. An inductively coupled matching network is not normally
used in a resonant antenna system
B. An inductively coupled matching network is used to
increase the SWR to an acceptable level
C. An inductively coupled matching network can be used to
match the unbalanced condition at the transmitter output to the
balanced condition required by the coaxial line
D. An inductively coupled matching network can be used at
the antenna feed point to tune out the radiation resistance
3I-12.5 What is an antenna-transmission line ++++mismatch++++?
A. A condition where the feed-point impedance of the antenna
does not equal the output impedance of the transmitter
B. A condition where the output impedance of the transmitter
does not equal the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C. A condition where a half-wavelength antenna is being fed
with a transmission line of some length other than one-quarter
wavelength at the operating frequency
D. A condition where the characteristic impedance of the
feed line does not equal the feed-point impedance of the antenna
Answers
3A-3.2 A
3A-3.3 A
3A-3.4 C
3A-3.5 C
3A-3.7 A
3A-4.1 C
3A-4.3 C
3A-6.1 B
3A-6.2 C
3A-6.6 A
3A-8.6 D
3A-9.1 C
3A-9.2 A
3A-9.3 D
3A-9.4 A
3A-9.5 B
3A-9.6 C
3A-9.7 A
3A-9.8 A
3A-9.9 C
3A-9.10 B
3A-9.11 C
3A-9.12 A
3A-9.13 B
3A-9.14 C
3A-9.15 C
3A-9.16 C
3A-10.1 A
3A-10.2 C
3A-10.3 D
3A-10.4 C
3A-10.5 B
3A-10.6 C
3A-10.7 C
3A-10.8 C
3A-13.1 C
3A-13.2 D
3A-14.3 B
3A-14.6 A
3A-15.1 D
3A-15.3 C
3A-15.4 B
3A-16.1 C
3A-16.2 B
3A-16.3 A
3A-16.4 A
3B-1.4 C
3B-1.5 B
3B-2.1 B
3B-2.2 A
3B-2.3 C
3B-2.4 A
3B-2.6 B
3B-2.10 C
3B-2.11 D
3B-2.12 B
3B-3.8 A
3B-3.12 A
3B-4.1 A
3B-4.2 B
3B-5.1 D
3B-5.2 C
3B-6.1 B
3B-6.2 B
3B-6.3 B
3B-7.1 B
3B-7.2 A
3B-7.3 A
3B-7.4 C
3B-7.5 C
3B-8.1 C
3B-8.2 B
3B-8.3 B
3B-8.4 C
3B-8.5 C
3B-8.6 B
3B-8.7 C
3B-8.8 C
3B-8.9 C
3B-10.1 A
3B-10.2 B
3C-1.6 C
3C-1.7 B
3C-1.9 B
3C-1.10 A
3C-1.13 D
3C-2.3 C
3C-2.4 C
3C-3.3 B
3C-3.4 C
3C-5.1 B
3C-5.2 A
3C-5.3 B
3C-5.4 C
3C-5.5 A
3C-6.2 B
3C-6.4 D
3C-6.5 B
3C-6.6 D
3C-7.1 B
3C-7.2 D
3C-7.3 A
3C-7.4 D
3C-7.5 D
3C-7.6 A
3C-7.7 D
3C-7.8 C
3C-10.1 D
3C-10.2 A
3C-10.3 B
3C-10.4 D
3D-1.5 A
3D-1.6 A
3D-1.7 D
3D-1.8 C
3D-1.9 D
3D-2.4 B
3D-3.1 C
3D-3.2 C
3D-3.3 C
3D-3.4 D
3D-3.5 D
3D-4.1 A
3D-4.2 D
3D-4.3 C
3D-4.4 B
3D-4.5 B
3D-5.1 B
3D-5.5 A
3D-5.6 B
3D-5.7 B
3D-6.1 D
3D-6.2 A
3D-6.3 D
3D-6.4 B
3D-9.1 C
3D-9.2 A
3D-9.3 D
3D-10.1 B
3D-10.2 B
3D-10.3 C
3D-10.4 C
3D-10.5 A
3D-12.2 D
3D-12.3 B
3D-12.4 C
3D-12.5 D
3D-13.1 A
3D-13.2 C
3D-13.3 D
3D-14.6 B
3D-14.7 C
3D-15.1 B
3D-15.2 A
3D-15.3 B
3D-15.4 D
3D-17.2 A
3D-17.3 C
3D-17.4 A
3D-17.5 B
3D-17.6 C
3E-1.1 C
3E-1.2 C
3E-3.1 B
3E-3.2 D
3E-3.3 D
3E-3.4 D
3E-3.5 A
3E-6.1 A
3E-6.2 D
3E-6.3 D
3E-6.4 A
3E-7.2 B
3E-7.4 A
3E-10.1 A
3E-10.2 A
3E-10.3 D
3E-10.4 B
3E-10.5 D
3E-10.6 B
3E-10.7 C
3E-10.8 D
3E-10.9 C
3E-12.1 D
3E-12.3 B
3E-13.1 B
3E-13.2 D
3E-13.3 A
3E-14.1 C
3E-14.2 D
3E-14.3 A
3E-14.4 B
3E-14.5 B
3E-14.6 B
3E-14.7 A
3E-15.1 C
3E-15.2 A
3E-15.3 A
3E-15.4 D
3E-16.1 B
3E-16.2 D
3E-16.3 B
3F-1.5 C
3F-2.6 D
3F-2.7 D
3F-3.5 C
3F-4.1 A
3F-4.2 B
3F-4.3 A
3F-4.4 D
3F-5.1 C
3F-5.2 B
3F-5.4 D
3G-1.1 A
3G-1.2 C
3G-1.3 D
3G-1.4 B
3G-1.5 D
3G-1.6 A
3G-1.7 D
3G-1.8 D
3G-1.9 D
3G-2.8 B
3H-2.1 D
3H-2.3 B
3H-2.4 D
3H-3.1 D
3H-3.2 A
3H-4.1 C
3H-4.2 C
3H-5.1 A
3H-5.2 C
3H-7.2 B
3H-8.1 D
3H-8.2 C
3H-9.1 C
3H-10.1 B
3H-10.2 D
3H-11.1 A
3H-13.1 D
3H-13.2 B
3H-15.1 B
3H-15.2 A
3H-16.4 A
3H-16.5 C
3I-1.3 C
3I-1.7 D
3I-1.9 A
3I-2.1 C
3I-3.1 B
3I-3.2 B
3I-3.3 B
3I-3.4 C
3I-3.5 C
3I-3.6 C
3I-3.7 B
3I-3.8 B
3I-3.9 C
3I-5.1 D
3I-5.2 B
3I-5.3 D
3I-5.4 B
3I-6.1 C
3I-6.2 A
3I-6.3 B
3I-6.4 C
3I-6.5 D
3I-6.6 C
3I-7.1 A
3I-7.2 B
3I-7.3 A
3I-7.4 D
3I-8.4 C
3I-9.3 A
3I-9.4 D
3I-9.5 C
3I-11.1 C
3I-11.2 A
3I-11.4 D
3I-11.7 B
3I-11.8 D
3I-11.10 D
3I-11.12 A
3I-12.1 D
3I-12.2 A
3I-12.5 D
Return to
the library file section.
|
